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Suzhou Chen Laoshi Mathematics
Answer: (1) Proof: Intercept EA=MC on AB and connect EM to get △ AEM.

∠∠ 1 = 180-∠AMB-∠AMN,∠2= 180 -∠AMB-∠B,∠AMN=∠B=60,

∴∠ 1=∠2.

And ∵CN divides ∠ACP, ∠ 4 = 12 ∠ ACP = 60,

∴∠MCN=∠3+∠4= 120。 ①

And ∵BA=BC, EA=MC,

Ba-ea = BC-MC, which means be = BM.

△ BEM is an equilateral triangle.

∴∠6=60 .

∴∠5= 180 -∠6= 120 .②

∴ MCN =∠ 5 comes from ① ②.

At △AEM and △MCN,

∠ 1=∠2AE=CM∠MCN=∠5,

∴△AEM≌△MCN(ASA).

∴AM=MN.

So the answer is: ∠1= ∠ 2; AE = CM∠MCN =∠5;

(2) Solution: Conclusion A1m1= m1n1is still valid for the following reasons:

Intercept A 1E=C 1M 1 on A 1B 1 and connect EM 1.

The quadrangle a1b1c1d1is a square.

∴a 1b 1=b 1c 1,∠b 1=90,

∴EB 1=M 1B 1, that is, △EB 1M 1 is an isosceles right triangle.

∴∠B 1EM 1=45,

∫c 1n 1 is the bisector of∠ d1c1p1.

∴∠a 1em 1=∠n 1c 1p 1= 135,

≈b 1a 1m 1+≈a 1m 1b 1 = 90,≈a 1m 1b 1+≈n 1m 1c 1 = 90,

∴∠b 1a 1m 1=∠n 1m 1c 1,

In △A 1EM 1 and △ m1n1,

∠ea 1m 1 =∠c 1m 1n 1E = m 1c 1∠a 1em 1 =∠m 1c 1n 1,

∴△a 1em 1≌△m 1n 1c 1(asa),

∴a 1m 1=m 1n 1.