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- 20 10 national mathematics 1 answer
20 10 national mathematics 1 answer
Because lnX is increasing function (e x ≥ 0 can be proved to be derivative) and 0 < x < 1, lnx < ln 1 = 0,
Then xlnx < 0...( 1),
We also know that LNX-X+ 1 ≤ 0...(2)
Add (1) and (2).
You can get f(x) ≤0.
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