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Excuse me, how is the second underlined part of this high number problem calculated, and why can it be changed outside the integral formula?
If f (t) >; G(t), then the integral of f(t) on A and B is greater than the integral of g(t), which is a simple inequality, not the so-called outward switching.

Here g(t) is the original integrand function, and f(t) is g(x). The proof of the previous line has shown that f(t)=g(x)>g(t).