(1) Let the average percentage of each downward adjustment be x, then according to the meaning of the question, we can get:

( 1-x)？ =4860÷6000

Solution: x=0. 1

That is, the average percentage of each downward adjustment is 10%

(2) The real estate sales manager suggests to the developer that the final selling price is:

6000× (1-0.05 )× (1-0.15) = 4845 (yuan/m? ) & lt4860 (yuan/meter? )

From the comparison of the above calculation results, it can be seen that this scheme is more favorable.