1, written at sixes and sevens, asking the preface is also irrelevant!

2. When n→∞, (1+1/n) (-n )→1/e, so: e (1+1/n) (-n) → 65438.

e( 1+ 1/n)^(-n)- 1→0

3. In the definition and concept of limit, I have heard of equivalent infinitesimal substitution, but I have never heard of equivalent deformation. I don't know what you are talking about!

4. If it is equivalent infinitesimal replacement, then this form of replacement is meaningless because it does not have universality, independence and ease of use!

5. If it is an equivalent infinitesimal replacement, then this problem is actually investigating the basic formula of equivalent infinitesimal: A X- 1 ~ XLNA, where a=e, e x-1~ x;

6. According to Heine's theorem, let y = (1+ 1/x) (-x), then the original formula = e-1= e (ELNY)-1= e (65438).

Namely: e (1+1/n) (-n) ~1-NLN (1+1/n)

7. This question is meaningless, that is, it examines the application of infinitesimal basic equivalence. You don't see through the problem, you are wrong. It seems that your foundation is still relatively poor and needs to be strengthened!