Multiple choice questions 1 frequency of chest compressions. The guidelines for cardiopulmonary resuscitation in 2005 are: BA 80- 100 beats/min; B 100 times/minute; C 120 times/minute; D 60-80 times/min 2. In 2005, the ratio of chest compression to ventilation during single or double resuscitation was AA 30: 2; b 15:2； c 30: 1； D 15: 13。 In 2005, the position of chest compression in cardiopulmonary resuscitation guidelines was: the middle part of sternum between AA nipples; B vertex; C middle sternum; D left sternum margin, fifth intercostal 4. The depth of chest compression for adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation is: half of CA's chest anteroposterior diameter; b 2-3cm； C 4-5 cm; D 6-7cm5。 In adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the tidal volume is aa 500-600 ml; b 600-700ml； c 400-500ml； D 800- 1000 ml6。 The guideline in 2005 recommended that each blowing time should be: A A exceeds 1 s; B is less than 1 sec; C equals expiratory time; Blow fast and forcefully. 7. In adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the frequency of artificial respiration is: BA 6-8 times/minute; B 8- 10 times/minute; C 10- 12 times/minute; D 12- 15 times/minute. 8. The time interval of chest compressions for adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation is: DA 5 minutes; B 3 minutes; C 10 minute; D 2 minutes and 9 seconds Using unidirectional wave defibrillator, the electric shock energy is selected as: ca 200 j; B 300JC 360JD 150J 10。 Using bidirectional wave defibrillator, the electric shock energy is selected as: CA100J; b 100- 150j； c 150-200j； D 300J 1 1。 The most common ways of airway opening in adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation are: AA lifting chin; B. press the lower jaw with both hands; D chin method; D cricoid cartilage compression method 12. When treating ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia, the recommended number of electric shocks is AA1; B 3 times; C 2 times; D 4 times 13. Among the patients who witnessed non-traumatic cardiac arrest, the most common heart rhythms are: CA-type cardiac arrest; B pulseless ventricular fibrillation; Ventricular fibrillation; Electromechanical separation 14. The best treatment measures for patients witnessing transient ventricular fibrillation are: DA chest compression; Intravenous lidocaine b; C intravenous amiodarone; D defibrillation immediately 15. Non-professional emergency personnel should: AA give artificial respiration twice, and then immediately start chest compressions; B. Emergency medical service system; C immediately look for automatic defibrillators; D Start the vital sign assessment first, and then perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation 16. Before defibrillating patients with cardiac arrest without witnesses, rescuers in the emergency medical service system should: BA pat the precordial area; B about 5 groups of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (about 2 minutes) before defibrillation; C without other treatment, electric defibrillation is performed immediately; D intravenous amiodarone and then defibrillation 17. AA should give about 5 groups of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (or about 2 minutes) before two heartbeat examinations in patients with pulseless cardiac arrest; B, 12 lead ECG examination; C, establishing a deep vein channel; D prepare for defibrillation 18. In cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the first responder should: check the heartbeat or pulse immediately after BA electric shock; B chest compressions were performed first, and the heartbeat was checked after 5 groups (or about 2 minutes) of cardiopulmonary resuscitation; C. immediately carry out electrocardiogram examination; D adjust the defibrillator and prepare for the second defibrillation 19. The usage of epinephrine in adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation is AA 1mg, diluted and injected intravenously, and repeated every 5 minutes; B 1mg-3mg-5mg, diluted and injected intravenously, increasing every 5 minutes; C 5mg, diluted and injected intravenously, repeated every 5 minutes; D 1 mg-3 mg-5 mg-5 mg, diluted and injected intravenously, and repeated every 5 minutes. 20. The usage of vasopressin in adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation is: intravenous injection of 40u；; B 40U, repeated every 5 minutes; C. One-time intravenous injection of 20U；; D 20U, repeated every 5 minutes, 2 1, 18 years old, bedridden in the morning, delirious, sweating, salivation and dyspnea. Physical examination: unconsciousness, pupil narrowing like a needle tip, lungs covered with moist rales, heart rate of 60 beats/min, muscle bundle tremor and convulsion. The most likely diagnosis is: (B )A A acute diazepam poisoning; B. acute organophosphorus poisoning; C. acute carbon monoxide poisoning; D. acute chlorpromazine poisoning; E. acute barbiturate poisoning. A 22.24-year-old female came to the hospital in a coma half an hour after taking dichlorvos 10ml by mistake, and was diagnosed as acute organophosphorus poisoning. Which of the following is a nicotine-like symptom: (b) A.A. Hyperhidrosis; B. muscle fiber bundle fibrillation; Pupil contraction; D. salivation; E. Pulmonary edema 23. The posture that should be taken during gastric lavage for acute organophosphorus poisoning: (B )A A A. Right lateral position; B. left position; C. supine position; D. prone position. 24. The insertion depth of adult gastric tube is generally: (c) A.40 ~ 45 cm; B. 55 ~ 60cmC. 45 ~ 55cmd. Over 60 cm. 25. To judge whether gastric lavage is complete in patients with acute organophosphorus poisoning, we can refer to: (B )A A A. The amount of gastric lavage; B. Whether the eluent is clear and tasteless; C. whether the clinical symptoms have improved. 26. Which of the following drugs can be used to antagonize isoniazid poisoning: (c) A. Vitb1; B.vitb2c.vitb6d.vitb1227, The use time of cholinesterase resuscitator for organophosphorus poisoning: (d) a.1~ 3d; B.3 ~ 5dc.5 ~ 7dd. Use according to the degree of poisoning, improvement of symptoms and recovery of enzyme activity. 28. When Luohai is poisoned, the first choice of antidote is: (c) A.A. Lobelin; Atropine; C. naloxone; D. Fluoride in Masini. 29. Treatment of pulmonary edema caused by acute organophosphorus poisoning: (d) A.A. Ceylon; B. furosemide; C. methylprednisolone; Atropine 30. The specific antidotes for diazepam poisoning are: (a) A-Acinetobacter fluoride; B. naloxone; C. have a good sleep; Sodium bicarbonate. 3 1. The poisonous snakes that mainly secrete neurotoxins are: (a) Bungarus multicinctus; Agkistrodon acutus; C. bamboo green snake; Viper 32. The poisonous snakes that secrete mixed toxins are: (c) Bungarus multicinctus; B. sea snakes; C. cobra; Viper 33. Regarding puffer fish poisoning, which one is not its treatment: (D )A A. Induced vomiting, gastric lavage and catharsis; B intramuscular injection or subcutaneous injection 1% strychnine hydrochloride; C. Mechanical ventilation can be implemented when respiratory paralysis occurs; Intravenous drip of sodium bicarbonate. 34. A 23-year-old woman experienced nausea and vomiting after eating dried fish fillets and beer. A few hours later, she complained of numbness in her lips and weakness in her limbs, and soon she had difficulty breathing and lost consciousness. The most likely diagnosis is: (B )A A A. Acute alcoholism; B. puffer fish poisoning; C. Botulinum poisoning; Anaphylactic shock Which of the following is not a common complication in patients with severe carbon monoxide poisoning: (d) A.A. Shock; B. respiratory failure; C. brain edema; D. acute myocardial infarction. 36. Which of the following methods is not suitable for treating acute carbon monoxide poisoning: (D )A A. Hyperbaric oxygen chamber; B. dehydration; C. improve brain metabolism; D. blood transfusion. 37, moderate carbon monoxide poisoning, the concentration of carboxyhemoglobin in blood is about: (b) A.10% ~ 30%; b . 30% ~ 50%； c . 50% ~ 70%； D.5% ~ 10% 38。 The temperature of gastric lavage should be: (a) a.32 ~ 37℃; B. 4℃ or so; c . 37 ~ 40℃； D.2 1 ~ 24℃ 39。 The common complications of chronic alcoholism do not include: (D )A A. Chronic gastritis; B. alcoholic cirrhosis; C. peripheral neuritis; Schizophrenia. 40. The main causes of death from paraquat poisoning are: (A )A A, progressive pulmonary fibrosis; B. acute renal failure; C. toxic liver injury; D. toxic myocarditis. 4 1. It is most reliable to follow the order of (b) when giving pre-hospital first aid to patients. Trunk to limbs; From head to toe; C. the place where bleeding is treated first; Personal habits. For trauma first aid, the patient's life depends on whether we handle step (a) well. A criticism; B all; C general; D all; 43. Due to the traction of the fixed ligament, which of the following organs is common? (c) lungs. B gallbladder; C spleen; Appendix 44. Crush injuries do not often occur in (d) lungs; B heart; C diaphragm; Empty bladder 45. The mechanism of fall injury is (b) severe deceleration. Grade a; B vertical aspect; C in terms of rotation; D parabola 46. The fall injury does not depend on which of the following factors (d) the height of the fall; B the part that hits the ground; The shape of the ground; D the weight of the person who fell is 47. In knife wounds, (c) chest injuries below intercostal space will also involve abdominal organs. a2； B3； C4； D 5 48。 Among explosion injuries, what kind of injuries caused by gas impact are uncommon (d) diaphragm rupture; B pneumothorax; C gastrointestinal injury; D Fracture 49, knife injury treatment, the important principles are: (a) Do not take out the knife that penetrates the body; B, taking out the knife C that has penetrated into the body for rapid infusion; Bandage the wound. At the scene of rescue or when the wounded have just been sent to the emergency room, they should: (c) collect medical history; Comprehensive and detailed inspection; C quickly judge whether there are signs of life danger 5 1. The basis for judging the success of on-site resuscitation is: (c) the pulse of aorta is palpable; B ECG showed ventricular fibrillation; C The recovery of spontaneous circulation is 5 1 which of the following causes will not cause airway obstruction: (a) fracture of larynx or tracheal cartilage; B shock; C craniocerebral injury 52. After the first-aid personnel arrive at the trauma site, their main tasks are: (b) safe transportation; B. eliminate the factors that threaten patients' lives; Fracture fixation. Re-evaluation of trauma patients focuses on: (c) retroperitoneal organ injury; Secondary intracranial and intraperitoneal hemorrhage; All above C are 54. The main factors leading to the death of multiple injuries are: (a) craniocerebral injury; B chest injury; Injury of pelvis and spinal cord of limbs. What are the wrong ways to open the airway when inserting the pharyngeal tube? (C)A goes on stage, chin B, tongue retractor C, laryngoscope D, scissors method 56. Open the oxygen cylinder with a simple mask and keep the speed at about -L/min. (d) A.2-3b.3-5c.7-10d.1-1257, ventilate with a mask, and keep the inspiratory time at-seconds and the expiratory time at about-seconds. (1) A. 1.5 ~ 2,1.5 ~ 4b.1~1.5, 1 ~ 3c. 1.5 ~ 2,/kloc- a . 600-800 b . 800- 1000 c . 1000- 1200d . 1200- 150059。 When there is a problem with the intubation position, the following methods can be used to determine which ones are wrong-(b) A. No breathing sounds should be heard during auscultation of upper abdomen B. No breathing sounds can be heard during auscultation of sternal notch C. Pressure fluctuation can be felt when the sternal notch presses the palpation catheter balloon D. Earwash ball and CO2 monitor can be used to help diagnose 60. The following description of the intubation process is wrong. (c) A. The assistant fixes the patient's head. Sellick method should be more commonly used. B. Open the chin so that the laryngoscope can enter from the right side of the mouth and enter the pharynx along the base of the tongue. C after seeing the epiglottis, the catheter can enter from the left side of the epiglottis. When the glottis is open, insert the catheter conveniently until it is about 5 cm below the vocal cords. D. Inflate the balloon at the front end of the catheter, fix the catheter, and check whether the catheter position is correct. 6 1, the irreversible time of brain tissue after hypoxia is generally; A 1 min B 2 min C 3 min D 4 min 62. Tracheal intubation can cause various reflexes, except the following situations: (d) A. Cough reflex B. Swallowing reflex C. Vomiting reflex D. Knee healthy reflex 63. The thoracic cavity is a bone cavity surrounded by ribs, which are connected backward to the thoracic vertebrae and forward to the sternum. (C)A 10 to B 1 1 to C 12 to D 13 to 64. Each side of adult pleural cavity can hold about 60% liquid. 1 liter B 2 liter C 3 liter D 4 liter 65. The most common chest trauma is. (C)A pneumothorax B hemothorax C simple rib fracture D myocardial contusion 66. The two most common symptoms after chest trauma are. (B)A chest pain with shock B chest pain with dyspnea C dyspnea with hemoptysis D shock with hemoptysis 67. The emergency treatment of tension pneumothorax should be carried out immediately. (a) A exhaust B tracheal intubation C rehydration D chest fixation 68. For patients considering pericardial tamponade, the following treatment is wrong. (D)A keeps the airway unobstructed, supports B to transport quickly and C to replenish blood volume appropriately, and decompresses pericardium at position D 69. Which of the following injuries is not fatal? (B)A tension pneumothorax B simple rib fracture C pericardial tamponade D aortic rupture 70, pericardial tamponade triad does not include which of the following options. (C)A hypotension B jugular vein dilatation C chest pain D far heart sound 7 1, symptoms and signs of massive hemothorax are mainly as follows. (a) chest pain and coma b hypovolemia and chest pain c respiratory damage and coma d hypovolemia and respiratory damage 72. Tension pneumothorax can be punctured into the pleural cavity with a thick needle at the midline of the clavicle between the affected ribs in an emergency. (a) A: 2b: 3c: 4d: 573。 Which of the following is not an indication of emergency decompression of tension pneumothorax? (C)A: respiratory distress and lung collapse B: radial artery pulsation disappeared (late shock) C: chest pain D: consciousness gradually decreased 74. Complications of emergency decompression of tension pneumothorax include? (B)A: intercostal vascular injury D: rib fracture C: lung rupture D: infection 75. What is the minimum length of puncture catheter during emergency decompression of tension pneumothorax? (b) A: 3cm: 5cm: 7cm: 9cm 74. Indications of external jugular vein catheterization are: (d) osteomyelitis; B sepsis; Acute bacillary dysentery; D. Patients who need venous access but do not have suitable peripheral veins 75. When the anterior cranial fossa is fractured, the congestion area mostly occurs in: (a) A. Eyelid; B, subconjunctival; Temporal region and infratemporal region; D, suboccipital, mastoid region. 76. When the posterior cranial fossa is fractured, it often happens: (B)A, runny nose; B, ear leakage; C, runny nose or ear leakage; D, it can happen. 77. Where is the cerebrospinal fluid between the two meninges: (C)A, between the dura mater and the pia mater; B, between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane; C, between the pia mater and arachnoid membrane; D, 78 between arachnoid membrane and brain tissue. Early reaction of brain injury: (A)A, swelling; B, ischemia; C, congestion; D. The optimal ventilation frequency for patients with congestion 79 and craniocerebral injury is (B)A, 10- 15/ min b, 10- 12/ min c,12-/kloc-0. Intracranial pressure; C, mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure; D, not sure. 82. What is the minimum cerebral perfusion pressure: (C)A, 40mmHg B, 50mmHg C, 60mmHg D, 70mmHg83. In order to maintain the cerebral perfusion pressure of patients with craniocerebral trauma, the systolic blood pressure should be kept at: (D)A, 80-90 mmHg；; b、90- 100 mmhg； c、 100- 1 10 mmhg； D,110-120mmhg84, flaccid paralysis often suggests: (a) spinal cord injury; B, brain stem injury; C, cerebral cortex injury; D, brain gray matter injury 85, skull puncture for brain puncture injury should be: (D)A, immediately take out the puncture object and immediately transport the patient; B, immediately remove the exposed part of the puncture object and immediately transport the patient; C, immediately indicate that the puncture object should be taken out immediately after entering and transported to the patient. D, puncture should be fixed in place and immediately transported to the patient. 86. Moderate burns mean that the area of CA and II degree burns is less than 9%. The burn area of grade B and II is 10% ~ 19%. The area of C and II degree burns is 10% ~ 29. Area III is less than 10%D, with a total area of 30%~39%E and a total area of more than 50%. 87. Patients with extensive severe burns should first (c) measure the central venous pressure. Thorough debridement. D. establish an infusion route. Disinfect the wound to avoid reinfection. 88. The following is (d) A. Hold your head high and rest in bed. C. take the supine position for ischemic cerebrovascular disease. Patients with spinal injuries should lie on soft beds. Patients with restlessness should use restraint belts. 89. At rest, the normal range of intracranial pressure is (D). A.130-260mmh2ob.140-400mmh2oc.170-300mmh2od.70-200mmh2o90, the typical manifestations of intracranial hypertension syndrome are as follows: EA. Vomiting B. Headache C. Papillary edema D. Hypertension E.